NT greek question
A question for you - possibly a bit basic, but I'm just starting out so please bear with me. Epsilon-contracted verbs (such as phile-o, mise-o and metanoe-o) have distinct rules about what the epsilon contracts to in specific phonological circumstances. For instance, epsilon-omicron goes to 'ou', epsilon-diphthong leads to deletion of epsilon. But what about the 3PP of 'metanoeo'? According to the simple rules of contraction, it should become 'metano-ousin', but that looks like too many vowels to me. Shouldn't it contract further, to 'metan-ousin'?